Massachusetts OEMS Protocols Basic Life Support (BLS) Practice Exam

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• Which MOLST form boxes must be fully completed for validity?
• Severe Distress from acute bronchospasm in a pediatric patient is described as..
• Who is considered an emancipated minor?
• What is considered non-threatening body language for a provider to show?
• What is the dose/route for nitroglycerin?
• Aspirin primarily acts as which type of agent?
• Under what condition may an EMT administer an inhaler to a patient?
• Which of the following is a risk factor for patient violence?
• What position should a suspected stroke patient be transported in?
• Must all four criteria be met to withhold resuscitation in lividity or rigor?
• How should an EMT assess a newborn's breathing?
• In regards to a valid refusal, what is meant by 'Informed Refusal'?
• Which finding after ROSC supports consideration for Targeted Temperature Management?
• Naloxone contraindications
• Under what condition should EMS use emergency lights and sirens during transport?
• Naloxone Mechanism of Action
• What length of umbilical cord should be left between a newborn and the most proximal clamp?
• How long after the first dose should the second dose be given to adults on standing orders?
• The patient care report is required for which encounters?
• When treating a patient with a behavioral emergency, providers should try to maintain eye contact.
• Pupils criterion: which option states the requirement?
• Which laboratory value is included in adult sepsis criteria if available?
• Oral Glucose dose/route for a pediatric patient
• Which term best describes the method for moving non-ambulatory patients in these protocols?
• What are considered the most effective therapies for cardiac arrest?
• What is the indication for Naloxone in patients?
• Which finding is associated with obstructive shock?
• Which symptom is not an adult indication for epinephrine?
• What is the naloxone dose for intranasal administration?
• Which item is NOT required on a CC/DNR order to be valid?
• When is passive insufflation indicated?
• How many times can aspirin be administered?
• When should an AED be used during a cardiac arrest?
• What is the maximum number of 1:1000 epinephrine doses allowed under standing orders for an adult patient?
• Which of the following is NOT a listed side effect of Naloxone?
• Cyanosis is usually a late sign in pediatric bronchospasm. True or False?
• Aspirin standing order is for which medical complaint?
• For patients experiencing hyperthermia EMTs should...
• If a patient remains symptomatic after the first Naloxone dose given per standing orders, when should the second dose be given?
• Which statement describes the validity requirements for a MOLST form?
• When may changes be made on scene to a MOLST form?
• Which statement about stopping en route is correct?
• What action should be taken in penetrating trauma with short transport time?
• Who can complete a Section 12 application upon request by EMS if one has not been completed?
• Can an EMT administer an adult dose of 1:1000 Epinephrine to an adult experiencing bronchospasm?
• When is it appropriate to remove restraints?
• In a licensed healthcare facility, a signature may be provided by staff indicating that the health care agent agrees with the terms of the MOLST but is unable to sign.
• If a patient walking exception is made, how should this be documented?
• In lividity or rigor, what is the required duration for respirations absent before withholding?
• Which scenario is a contraindication to aspirin administration?
• Which is an indication for Targeted Temperature Management?
• Which mechanism contributes to epinephrine 1:1000 increasing blood pressure?
• After 8 minutes or 4 cycles what should be done?
• What head position is recommended for airway management in a newborn during resuscitation?
• What is the pediatric dose of 1:1000 epinephrine?
• When may a patient be physically restrained?
• In regards to a valid refusal, what is meant by 'Capacity'?
• In regards to a valid refusal of care, what is meant by 'Competence'?
• Which item is NOT part of adult sepsis criteria?
• Which condition indicates giving oral glucose?
• In what position should a patient be placed when experiencing heat exhaustion?
• At what times should the APGAR score be performed on a newborn?
• Which statement aligns with pediatric sepsis criteria?
• In a clogged tracheostomy tube, which is the final step in management?
• T or F: Patients in cardiac arrest from blunt chest trauma should not be transported by air transport.
• What is the age range for administering 1:1000 epinephrine?
• Which of the following is NOT an indication for Targeted Temperature Management?
• Are lift assists subject to PCR requirements, and if so, which regulatory citation is cited in the protocol?
• What operational condition justifies air medical transport?
• What factor distinguishes whether a patient requires an adult or pediatric dose of oral glucose?
• What is another name used for aspirin?
• If there is any doubt about the health care agent's authority, EMS should ...
• How should patients that are unconscious or seizing be transported?
• Can EMTs administer oral hydration to patients experiencing hyperthermia?
• Should chest compressions be performed while the AED is charging?
• Which of the following is included in adult sepsis criteria?
• Which acronym is commonly used for acetylsalicylic acid?
• HQCPR should not be used in which situations?
• How many 2-minute rounds are completed during the first eight minutes of an adult cardiac arrest resuscitation with a cardiac etiology?
• Which of the following is a commonly reported side effect of Naloxone?
• Stroke Alert criteria require which of the following?
• Which statement best describes the use of mechanical CPR devices regarding interruptions?
• What is the maximum number of nitroglycerin doses allowed if symptoms persist?
• Which scenario requires the use of a knee-chest or Trendelenburg position during transport?
• Who may remove Electronic Control Weapon probes?
• To withhold resuscitation in lividity or rigor, which combination of findings must be present?
• In a behavioral emergency, which non-threatening posture is recommended?
• Naloxone other names
• Which sign is typical of hypovolemic shock?
• If an EMT has any doubt on the validity of a MOLST or CC/DNR, what should they do?
• When may restraints be removed?
• What is the primary purpose of Naloxone?
• Which item must be included in the PCR if a patient is restrained?
• Which finding is most consistent with obstructive shock?
• How should an EMT assess a newborn's pulse?
• If a CC/DNR order has an expiration date and that date has passed, the order is not valid.
• When transporting a restrained patient, vital signs must be reassessed how often?
• Which statement is true regarding MOLST signatures in a licensed facility when the health care agent cannot sign?
• Which item is NOT required for a Comfort Care or Do Not Resuscitate order to be valid?
• Which action is correct if a patient cannot safely swallow and oral glucose would be contraindicated?
• When should the initial request for Advanced Life Support (ALS) be made?
• What is the total aspirin dose in the protocol?
• If the decision to stop en route is made, what must occur?
• If the patient objects to the health care agent's decision, what is the effect on the agent's decision?
• Which of the following is a contraindication for oral glucose administration?
• When may a MOLST or CC/DNR be revoked?
• In what position should EMTs transport a pregnant woman?
• Which cooling method is NOT recommended for hyperthermia?
• When deviating from protocols, what is required?
• Does a complete SAMPLE OPQRST assessment need to be performed on all patients?
• What form of restraints may EMTs apply to patients?
• Naloxone dose of 0.4 mg is delivered by which route?
• Which sign indicates severe distress in an allergic reaction?
• When should a mechanical CPR device be placed?
• Which scenario is an exception to not starting resuscitation in trauma?
• In trauma, resuscitation is generally not started unless the injury is penetrating trauma with a short transport time to the ED. Which scenario is the correct exception that requires starting resuscitation and transporting immediately?
• Which statement best describes the patient care report?
• What is the total aspirin dose and route as listed?
• During transport, when may EMS stop at another emergency?
• Which statement is not listed as an aspirin contraindication?
• Which statement about resuscitation decisions in lividity or rigor is true?
• Which of the following are indications for epinephrine in adults?
• Respiratory Distress from acute bronchospasm in a pediatric patient is described as..
• Which statement is true regarding the age restrictions for administering 1:1000 epinephrine?
• How should an EMT reassess a newborn's airway?
• Which of the following is a sign of distributive shock?
• Which sign is a characteristic indicator of cardiogenic shock?
• The first eight minutes of resuscitation consist of how many 2-minute rounds?
• For lung sounds absent bilaterally, duration?
• The adult dose can be given to someone over how many kilograms (or pounds)?
• Which scenario requires transport with knee-chest or Trendelenburg position?
• Do medications need to be provided in their entirety for every administration?
• Which symptom is NOT typically associated with mild allergic distress?
• If a patient has already taken aspirin and a partial dose remains, what should EMS do?
• When stopping en route, what must occur regarding the original patient when additional resources arrive?
• The guideline to apply gentle traction along the axis of the limb does not apply to which condition?
• When restraining a patient, spitting can be stopped using what?
• When assessing pulse and respiratory rate on a hypothermic patient, EMTs should assess for how long?
• How many times can you give Naloxone on standing order?
• Which actions are recommended for a patient with hypothermia to prevent further heat loss?
• Which scenario describes the appropriate resuscitation approach for trauma?
• Status epilepticus is defined as any generalized seizures lasting more than how many minutes?
• When should chest compressions be initiated on a newborn?
• Protocol 1.0 covers which aspect of patient care?
• Which temperature criterion is part of pediatric sepsis criteria?
• In pediatric patients, epinephrine standing orders cover which conditions?
• If no distal pulse is felt following a suspected extremity fracture, EMTs should...
• What is the adult dose of 1:1000 epinephrine?
• How many times can oral glucose be given to a pedi/adult on standing orders?
• Which of the following is a listed side effect of aspirin?
• What is a potential side effect of oral glucose?
• Patients with corrected Hypoglycemia taking sulfonylureas (glyburide, glipizide, etc) are at risk for what?
• When restraining a patient, violent head movement can be restrained using what?
• When should the patient care report be completed?
• In the presence of meconium-stained amniotic fluid, suctioning is indicated only if which condition is present?
• At minimum how many trained responders should attempt to restrain a patient?
• During tracheostomy obstruction, which action is performed after the airway is open?
• What does the Exception Principle permit?
• In the context of restrained patients, what is the role of the person with the handcuff key?
• Which statement best describes when an EMT may assist with a prescribed inhaler?
• When may a patient be restrained using handcuffs?
• In oral glucose administration, which statement is correct?
• Stroke alert onset within how many hours?
• During a cardiac arrest, compressors should switch at minimum every ___ minutes?
• Which condition is included in pediatric standing orders but not in adult standing orders?
• Which action is appropriate for a patient with a mild allergic reaction?
• Do lift assist calls require a patient care report (PCR)?
• At what rate are chest compressions performed?
• Which factor requires contacting medical control before administering epinephrine 1:1000?
• Which is a contraindication to nitroglycerin administration?
• Oral Glucose dose/route for an adult patient
• Can an EMT administer a pediatric dose of 1:1000 Epinephrine to a pediatric patient experiencing bronchospasm?
• Which of the following is NOT an indication for pediatric epinephrine standing orders?
• Which component is part of the FAST-ED stroke scale?
• For carotid pulse absent duration, what is required?
• Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for patient violence?
• Under what condition may an EMT administer nitroglycerin for chest pain?
• Can an EMT request that a Police Officer or Online Medical Control complete a Section 12 application if one has not already been completed?
• Which of the following is a risk factor for patient violence?
• On standing orders, how many doses can be given to pediatric and adult patients?
• What is the mechanism of action of epinephrine 1:1000?
• What are the 3 components of a valid refusal of care?
• At minimum how long should an EMT perform CPR on scene?
• Which of the following is a side effect of 1:1000 epinephrine?
• Which items should be documented in the PCR for a restrained patient?
• What is the primary objective during the early minutes of cardiac arrest?
• Mild Distress from acute bronchospasm in a pediatric patient is described as?
• In adult patients, epinephrine standing orders apply to which condition?
• Can patients walk to the stretcher or ambulance?
• Targeted Temperature Management eligibility requires which airway condition?
• In a newborn with meconium-stained amniotic fluid, when should suctioning of the oropharynx and nares be performed?
• Aspirin mechanism of action?
• Mild distress for an allergic reaction is defined as which symptom?
• What oxygen saturation threshold is used in the pediatric bronchospasm criteria for epi dosing?
• A competent patient with capacity to refuse evaluation, treatment and transport must meet what criteria to be allowed refusal?